DBMS Interview Questions MCQs: Essential Questions for Success

Q: What is the difference between static and dynamic SQL

divThe difference between static and dynamic SQLdivullistrongStatic SQLstrong Queries are predefined and fixed at compiletimebrstrongDynamic SQLstrong Queries are constructed at runtime offering flexibility to execute queries based on user input or conditionsliul

Q: What is a schema in DBMS

divA strongschema strongis the structure or blueprint of a database that defines its tables relationships constraints and other elements It outlines how data is organized and accessed within the databasenbspdiv

Q: What is the role of the DBMS buffer

divThe buffer in DBMS stores data temporarily to minimize the time spent on disk IO operations It helps to efficiently manage data retrieval by reducing the need to fetch data from disk frequentlynbspdiv

Q: What is entity in DBMS

divIn DBMS an strongentitystrong is any object concept or thing in the real world that can be identified and stored in a database Entities are represented as strongrecordsstrong or strongrowsstrong in a table and they have strongattributesstrong columns that describe their propertiesnbspdiv

31 Dec 2024

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DBMS Interview Questions MCQ

Learning DBMS interview questions MCQ is essential for students to strengthen their understanding of database management systems, a core concept in computer science. These MCQs provide a quick and effective way to revise key topics, test knowledge, and identify areas for improvement.

In the Interview tutorial, by practicing DBMS interview questions MCQ, students can gain confidence in tackling real-world database problems during interviews. Moreover, mastering these questions enhances their problem-solving skills and prepares them for competitive job opportunities.

Top 50+ DBMS Interview Questions MCQs

Let's learn the most commonly askedDBMS Interview Questions MCQ.

Q 1: What does DBMS stand for?

(a) Database Management Software
(b) Database Maintenance System
(c) Database Management System
(d) Database Manipulation Software

Q 2: Which of the following is an example of a DBMS?

(a) MySQL
(b) MongoDB
(c) Oracle
(d) All of the above

Q 3: Which of the following is not a type of database?

(a) Relational
(b) Distributed
(c) Hierarchical
(d) Data-centric

Q 4: What is the primary key in a database?

(a) A unique identifier for a table row
(b) A key that encrypts data
(c) A key that allows duplicate values
(d) A foreign key reference

Q 5: Which SQL command is used to delete a table?

(a) DROP TABLE
(b) DELETE TABLE
(c) REMOVE TABLE
(d) ERASE TABLE

Q 6: What is the purpose of a foreign key in a database?

(b) To establish a relationship between two tables
(c) To store duplicate data
(d) To restrict unauthorized access

Q 7: Which of the following is not a valid SQL command?

(a) SELECT
(b) REMOVE
(c) DELETE
(d) INSERT

Q 8: What is a candidate key in a database?

(a) A key used for encryption
(b) A key that can uniquely identify rows in a table
(c) A foreign key reference
(d) A key that allows duplicate values

Q 9: What is normalization in DBMS?

(a) Reducing data redundancy and improving data integrity
(b) Encrypting database tables
(c) Creating a backup of a database
(d) Duplicating data for faster access

Q 10: Which SQL clause is used to filter records based on a condition?

(a) ORDER BY
(b) GROUP BY
(c) WHERE
(d) SELECT

Q 11: Which command is used to add a new column to an existing table in SQL?

(a) ADD COLUMN
(b) ALTER TABLE
(c) MODIFY TABLE
(d) UPDATE TABLE

Q 12: What is the purpose of an index in a database?

(a) To reduce data size
(b) To speed up data retrieval
(c) To establish relationships between tables
(d) To enforce unique constraints

Q 13: What is a view in a database?

(a) A virtual table based on a SQL query
(b) A table with physical storage
(c) A stored procedure
(d) A backup copy of a database

Q 14: Which of the following is not a NoSQL database?

(a) MongoDB
(b) Redis
(c) PostgreSQL
(d) Cassandra

Q 15: Which normal form ensures that there are no partial dependencies in a table?

(a) 1NF
(b) 2NF
(c) 3NF
(d) BCNF

Q 16: What is the purpose of the COMMIT command in SQL?

(a) To save changes permanently to the database
(b) To undo recent changes
(c) To rollback a transaction
(d) To close a database connection

Q 17: What is a trigger in a database?

(a) A type of stored procedure executed automatically in response to certain events
(b) A tool to optimize queries
(c) A primary key enforcement mechanism
(d) A backup command for transactions

Q 18: What is the maximum number of primary keys that a table can have?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Unlimited

Q 19: Which of the following is a valid aggregate function in SQL?

(a) COUNT()
(b) AVG()
(c) SUM()
(d) All of the above

Q 20: Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result set of a query?

(a) SORT BY
(b) ORDER BY
(c) GROUP BY
(d) ARRANGE BY

Q 21: Which of the following is a DML (Data Manipulation Language) command in SQL?

(a) CREATE
(b) DELETE
(c) DROP
(d) ALTER

Q 22: What is the purpose of the UNIQUE constraint in a database?

(a) To prevent duplicate values in a column
(b) To define a primary key
(c) To create relationships between tables
(d) To allow null values

Q 23: Which of the following SQL statements is used to create a new table?

(a) CREATE TABLE
(b) INSERT INTO
(c) ALTER TABLE
(d) UPDATE TABLE

Q 24: What is a clustered index?

(a) An index where the physical order of rows matches the index order
(b) An index used only in primary keys
(c) An index that allows duplicate values
(d) An index used for foreign keys

Q 25: Which of the following is not a SQL JOIN type?

(a) INNER JOIN
(b) OUTER JOIN
(c) CROSS JOIN
(d) SELECT JOIN

Q 26: Which of the following best describes normalization?

(a) A process to organize data to reduce redundancy
(b) A method to ensure foreign keys
(c) A process to create duplicate tables
(d) A type of SQL command

Q 27: What is the full form of ACID properties in DBMS?

(a) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
(b) Accuracy, Concurrency, Integrity, Dependability
(c) Access, Control, Indexing, Durability
(d) Autonomy, Centralization, Isolation, Dependability

Q 28: Which of the following is true for a primary key?

(a) It can contain duplicate values
(b) It can contain null values
(c) It uniquely identifies each row in a table
(d) It is optional for a table

Q 29: Which type of join returns all rows when there is a match in either table?

(a) INNER JOIN
(b) LEFT JOIN
(c) OUTER JOIN
(d) CROSS JOIN

Q 30: What does the GROUP BY clause do in SQL?

(a) Groups rows with different values
(b) Groups rows with the same values
(c) Groups columns with similar names
(d) Groups multiple databases

Q 31: What is the function of the HAVING clause in SQL?

(a) Filters rows before grouping
(b) Filters groups based on aggregate functions
(c) Filters columns in a table
(d) Filters rows after grouping

Q 32: What does the TRUNCATE command do in SQL?

(a) Deletes all rows and frees space
(b) Deletes selected rows
(c) Deletes a column
(d) Deletes the table

Q 33: Which of the following is a NoSQL database?

(a) MySQL
(b) PostgreSQL
(c) MongoDB
(d) Oracle

Q 34: Which of the following is a valid relational database model operation?

(a) Intersection
(b) Union
(c) Join
(d) All of the above

Q 35: What is a candidate key in a relational database?

(a) A column that can uniquely identify a record
(b) A key that only references other keys
(c) A key that cannot be a primary key
(d) A key used in foreign tables

Q 36: What is the main purpose of a foreign key in a database?

(a) To uniquely identify each record
(b) To establish relationships between tables
(c) To improve query performance
(d) To enforce table structure

Q 37: What type of database is used to store large amounts of unstructured data?

(a) Relational database
(b) NoSQL database
(c) Hierarchical database
(d) Network database

Q 38: Which of the following SQL statements is used to extract data from a database?

(a) SELECT
(b) INSERT
(c) UPDATE
(d) DELETE

Q 39: In the context of database indexes, what is a clustered index?

(a) An index that sorts and stores the data rows in the table
(b) An index that does not sort data but speeds up queries
(c) An index created on foreign keys
(d) An index for joining multiple tables

Q 40: What is the main use of an ER diagram?

(a) To write SQL queries
(b) To model the database structure
(c) To enforce data integrity
(d) To improve query optimization

Q 41: What is a composite key in a relational database?

(a) A key that contains a single column
(b) A key that contains multiple columns
(c) A key used only for indexing
(d) A key used in a foreign table

Q 42: What is the difference between DELETE and TRUNCATE in SQL?

(a) DELETE removes data, TRUNCATE removes structure
(b) DELETE is DML, TRUNCATE is DDL
(c) DELETE resets the table, TRUNCATE does not
(d) DELETE cannot be rolled back, TRUNCATE can

Q 43: What is a database trigger?

(a) A query that is stored in the database
(b) A condition to check data integrity
(c) A procedure automatically executed on events
(d) A function to clean up data

Q 44: What is normalization in a database?

(a) Breaking tables into smaller tables
(b) Ensuring referential integrity
(c) Reducing redundancy and dependency
(d) All of the above

Q 45: What is a data warehouse?

(a) A database for online transaction processing
(b) A database optimized for read-intensive queries
(c) A centralized repository for analytical data
(d) A temporary storage for data migration

Q 46: What does ACID stand for in the context of database management systems?

(a) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
(b) Automation, Consistency, Integration, Durability
(c) Algorithm, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
(d) Atomicity, Computation, Isolation, Durability

Q 47: Which of the following is NOT a type of JOIN in SQL?

(a) INNER JOIN
(b) LEFT JOIN
(c) FULL OUTER JOIN
(d) SUBJOIN

Q 48: What does normalization help to eliminate in a relational database?

(a) Data redundancy
(b) Data inconsistency
(c) Unnecessary relationships
(d) All of the above

Q 49: Which of the following is an example of a NoSQL database?

(a) MySQL
(b) Oracle
(c) MongoDB
(d) PostgreSQL

Q 50: Which command is used to remove a table from a database?

(a) REMOVE
(b) DROP
(c) DELETE
(d) TRUNCATE

Q 52: What does the term 'denormalization' refer to in a database?

(a) Process of reducing the size of the database
(b) Process of combining tables to reduce redundancy
(c) Process of merging multiple databases
(d) Process of introducing redundancy into a database

Q 53: Which of the following is used to improve database performance by minimizing access to the database?

(a) Indexing
(b) Partitioning
(c) Caching
(d) All of the above

Q 54: Which of the following is a correct relationship between two tables in a relational database?

(a) One-to-one
(b) One-to-many
(c) Many-to-many
(d) All of the above

Q 55: What is the purpose of using the GROUP BY clause in SQL?

(a) To combine data from multiple tables
(b) To filter the records
(c) To aggregate data based on one or more columns
(d) To sort the data

Q 56: Which SQL statement is used to extract data from a database?

(a) GET
(b) SELECT
(c) EXTRACT
(d) OPEN

Q 57: What is the full form of DBMS?

(a) Data Binary Management System
(b) Database Management System
(c) Database Maintenance System
(d) Data Management System

Q 58: Which of the following is true about a primary key in a database?

(a) A primary key must be unique for each record in the table
(b) A primary key can be NULL
(c) A primary key can contain duplicate values
(d) A primary key is only used for indexing

Q 59: What is a database schema?

(a) The physical storage of data
(b) The structure that defines the organization of data
(c) The software used to manage the database
(d) The access control mechanism for databases

Q 60: Which SQL clause is used to filter records returned by a query?

(a) SELECT
(b) WHERE
(c) HAVING
(d) ORDER BY

Q 61: What is the purpose of the UNION operator in SQL?

(a) To combine the results of two queries
(b) To return only distinct records from both queries
(c) To join two tables based on a common column
(d) To delete records from multiple tables

Q 62: Which of the following is the correct definition of a database view?

(a) A table that stores data permanently
(b) A virtual table that provides a specific representation of data
(c) A function that calculates values in the database
(d) A part of the database used for indexing

Q 63: Which SQL statement is used to delete all records from a table but not the table itself?

(a) DROP
(b) DELETE
(c) REMOVE
(d) TRUNCATE

Q 64: Which of the following is used for maintaining data integrity in a database?

(a) Indexing
(b) Foreign key constraints
(c) Normalization
(d) All of the above

Q 65: Which type of JOIN returns all records when there is a match in either left (table1) or right (table2) table?

(a) INNER JOIN
(b) LEFT JOIN
(c) RIGHT JOIN
(d) FULL OUTER JOIN

Q 66: Which of the following statements is true about normalization?

(a) Normalization reduces data redundancy and improves data integrity
(b) Normalization increases data redundancy
(c) Normalization creates duplicate records
(d) Normalization is not necessary in a database

Q 67: What is a foreign key in a relational database?

(a) A primary key from one table used in another table
(b) A key used for indexing the database
(c) A key that uniquely identifies a record in a table
(d) A key that is used for retrieving data from the database

Q 68: Which of the following is the purpose of normalization in database design?

(a) To reduce redundancy and avoid anomalies
(b) To increase data redundancy
(c) To eliminate the use of indexes
(d) To speed up database performance by adding more tables

Q 69: Which of the following is the most suitable type of index for columns frequently searched using ranges (e.g., between 10 and 50)?

(a) Hash index
(b) B-tree index
(c) Bitmap index
(d) Clustered index

Q 70: Which of the following operations is performed by the SQL JOIN clause?

(a) Combining data from two or more tables based on a related column
(b) Deleting data from two tables
(c) Creating a new table by merging multiple tables
(d) Sorting the result set of multiple queries

Q 71: What does the term "referential integrity" mean in database systems?

(a) Ensuring that all primary key values are unique
(b) Ensuring that relationships between tables are consistent
(c) Ensuring that all data in the database is accurate
(d) Ensuring that there is no data redundancy

Conclusion

In conclusion, mastering DBMS Interview Questions MCQ is crucial for students and professionals aiming to excel in database management concepts. These questions not only test fundamental knowledge but also evaluate advanced problem-solving skills required in real-world scenarios. By practicing a wide range of DBMS MCQ questions, individuals can strengthen their understanding of relational databases, SQL commands, and system architecture.

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FAQs

The difference between static and dynamic SQL

Static SQL: Queries are predefined and fixed at compile-time.
Dynamic SQL: Queries are constructed at runtime, offering flexibility to execute queries based on user input or conditions.

A schema is the structure or blueprint of a database that defines its tables, relationships, constraints, and other elements. It outlines how data is organized and accessed within the database.

The buffer in DBMS stores data temporarily to minimize the time spent on disk I/O operations. It helps to efficiently manage data retrieval by reducing the need to fetch data from disk frequently.

In DBMS, an entity is any object, concept, or thing in the real world that can be identified and stored in a database. Entities are represented as records or rows in a table, and they have attributes (columns) that describe their properties.

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